31 May
2013
31 May
'13
8:49 a.m.
Rob Stewart wrote:
On May 30, 2013, at 5:34 AM, "Peter Dimov"
I don't think that the copy can be wrong, although I may be missing something. From a cursory inspection, it seems to me that
a1 = a2;
and
r1 = a2; a1 = r1;
are equivalent. It's true that in the second case a2's value can change after the first line, but it can change in the first case after the only line as well (which corresponds to changing after the second line in the second case), and the observable effect is the same (except in the trivial case in which a1 and a2 are the same variable, but that's easily taken care of).
While what you say is true, the two are different from a sequential consistency POV.
I don't think so.